I orginally posted this question for my virtual classmates, but no one has responded. Perhaps some of you could share your thoughts.
I'm in the process of responding to the questions from Lesson 11, and I started thinking about the issue of sin and will. The question is "Is Jesus Christ a human person? If not how is he 'like us in all things but sin' as the New Testament teaches?"
I started with the idea that sin is, by definition, an act of the will. I intended to show that Jesus's will could not by contrary to the Father's will, but that has obvious problems scripturally (Matthew 26:39). So clearly Jesus had a will and it differed from the will of God the Father. If this is the case, will would have to be tied to something that Jesus does not have in common with God. He does have personhood, but His personhood would arise from His essence and existence, which are by necessity the same as God's. So His will, which would be a necessary prerequisite to commit sin, must not arise from His personhood.
At this point, we have two options. Jesus's will arises solely from His human nature, or Jesus has two wills, one arising from each nature.